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LaCharles made a charitable contribution of property that he valued at $80,000. He deducted this amount as an itemized deduction on his tax return. The IRS can show that the actual value of the property is $50,000. LaCharles is in the 32% Federal income tax bracket. Determine LaCharles's amount due for any penalty.

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The ยง 6662 penalty for an individual app...

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An individual's amended tax return, computing a refund or amount due, generally uses Form____________________.

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Gadsden, who is subject to a 40% marginal Federal gift tax rate, made a gift of a sculpture to Marvin, valuing the property at $150,000. The IRS later valued the gift at $400,000. The applicable undervaluation penalty is:


A) $0.
B) $20,000.
C) $25,000 (maximum penalty) .
D) $40,000.

E) A) and B)
F) C) and D)

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Under Circular 230, Burke cannot complete a client's original Form 1040 and charge a fee equal to one-third of the resulting refund.

A) True
B) False

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When a tax issue is taken to court, the burden of proof is on the IRS to show that its audit adjustments are correct.

A) True
B) False

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A tax professional needs to know how the IRS is structured and how it works to carry out its mission. Evaluate this statement.

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The tax practitioner needs to study the ...

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A taxpayer's return might be selected for audit on the basis of the ________________ score that the IRS computes.

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Juarez (a calendar year taxpayer) donates a painting to a local art museum (a qualified charity) . The painting cost Juarez $2,000 ten years ago and, according to one of Juarez's friends (an amateur artist) , now is worth $40,000. On his income tax return, Juarez deducts $40,000 as a Form 1040 charitable contribution. Upon later audit by the IRS, it is determined that the true value of the painting was $30,000. Assuming that Juarez is subject to a 24% marginal Federal income tax rate, his penalty for overvaluation is:


A) $10,000 (minimum penalty) .
B) $5,000.
C) $2,400.
D) $2,000.
E) $0.

F) B) and D)
G) A) and E)

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Young-Eagle files her 2018 Form 1040 on July 1, 2019. The Federal tax statute of limitations for this return expires on:


A) April 15, 2022.
B) July 1, 2022.
C) July 1, 2026.
D) The statute never expires for a late-filed return.

E) All of the above
F) A) and C)

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A(n) ________________ member must follow the Statements of Standards for Tax Services in conducting a tax practice.

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Megan prepared for compensation a Federal income tax return for Joan. Joan's return included an aggressive interpretation of the rules concerning overnight business travel. Megan is not liable for a preparer penalty for taking an unreasonable tax return position if:


A) The tax reduction attributable to the disputed deduction did not exceed $5,000.
B) There was a reasonable basis for Joan's interpretation of the travel deduction rules.
C) There was substantial authority for Joan's interpretation of the travel deduction rules.
D) The IRS found that the travel deduction was frivolous, but Joan disclosed the position in an attachment to the return.

E) None of the above
F) A) and C)

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The IRS is one of the largest Federal agencies, employing almost ________________ people throughout the year.

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The tax preparer penalty for taking an unreasonable tax return position is the greater of $ ________________or ________________ of the tax professional's income from preparing the return.

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When the taxpayer has not paid a tax assessment to the Treasury, the IRS unilaterally can:


A) Foreclose on the taxpayer's house.
B) Force the taxpayer to sign an Offer in Compromise.
C) Either a. or b.
D) Neither a. nor b.

E) None of the above
F) A) and C)

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Which of the following statements correctly reflects the rules governing interest to be paid on an individual's Federal tax deficiency or claim for refund?


A) The IRS has full discretion in determining the rate that will apply.
B) The simple interest method for calculating interest is used.
C) IRS interest compounds daily.
D) Congress sets the IRS interest rate twice each year.

E) A) and D)
F) B) and C)

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A privilege of ________________ exists between certain types of tax preparers and the client as to tax advice rendered.

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Under Circular 230, tax preparer Winston cannot disclose to a mortgage banker the income level of her client Pickett, or other information acquired by preparing the return, without Pickett's permission.

A) True
B) False

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A(n) ________________ must obtain a Preparer Tax Identification Number (PTIN).

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Comment on the AICPA's Statements on Standards for Tax Services. To whom do the standards apply? Are they binding or merely advisory?

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The Statements are enforceable standards...

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The penalty for substantial understatement of tax liability does not apply if:


A) The taxpayer has substantial authority for the treatment taken on the tax return.
B) The relevant facts affecting the treatment are adequately disclosed in the return or on Form 8275.
C) The IRS failed to meet its burden of proof in showing the taxpayer's error.
D) All of the above statements are correct.

E) C) and D)
F) B) and C)

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